My earlier podcast: The last Confession of Jeremiah: Jeremiah 20: Yahweh seduces his prophet I simply assumed the translation seduce” for patah But “seduce” is not a translation favoured by English translations.
I dealt with this issue briefly in a blog post Did Yahweh seduce Jeremiah? with a bibliographic note Did God seduce Jeremiah? Addendum but since the issue was raised orally it seems right to deal with it orally here.
So, in Jer 20:7ff does Jeremiah claim YHWH seduced him, or not? Listen to the podcast and then you decide!
As well as Jer 20:7ff. these other places where patah is used in the piel are mentioned:
- Gen 9:27
- Ex 22:15 (v.16 in English)
- Jud 14:15; 16:5
- 1 Kgs 22:20,21,22 cf. 2 Chron 18:19,20,21
- Ps 78:36
- 2 Sam 3:25
- Pr 24:28
- Hos 2:1
- Pr 1:10
- Ez 14:9